想問一下老師:(a)(i)算現(xiàn)金流的時候,調(diào)整了movement in inventory, 答案用165-126-6, 為什么還要把6這個loss減掉呢?不應(yīng)該是直接資產(chǎn)負(fù)債表照抄嗎?
然后(b) 關(guān)于disposal of Barham里面的overdraft,答案說:the overdraft will be added to the proceeds (less any cash) to give an overall inflow. 這里賣掉了barham 就注銷了overdraft那為什么還會導(dǎo)致cash inflow呢?
謝謝老師!